最新のCAS-005試験のリアル試験問題 本日無料更新されました
CAS-005リアル試験問題解答は更新された[2025年03月29日]
CompTIA CAS-005 認定試験の出題範囲：
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質問 # 10
A security operations engineer needs to prevent inadvertent data disclosure when encrypted SSDs are reused within an enterprise. Which of the following is the most secure way to achieve this goal?
- A. Writing non-zero, random data to all cells of the SSD
- B. Securely deleting the encryption keys used by the SSD
- C. Wiping the SSD through degaussing
- D. Executing a script that deletes and overwrites all data on the SSD three times
正解：B
解説：
The most secure way to prevent inadvertent data disclosure when encrypted SSDs are reused is to securely delete the encryption keys used by the SSD. Without the encryption keys, the data on the SSD remains encrypted and is effectively unreadable, rendering any residual data useless.
This method is more reliable and efficient than overwriting data multiple times or using other physical destruction methods.
質問 # 11
A company plans to implement a research facility with Intellectual property data that should be protected The following is the security diagram proposed by the security architect
Which of the following security architect models is illustrated by the diagram?
- A. Perimeter protection security model
- B. Identity and access management model
- C. Zero Trust security model
- D. Agent based security model
正解：C
解説：
The security diagram proposed by the security architect depicts a Zero Trust security model. Zero Trust is a security framework that assumes all entities, both inside and outside the network, cannot be trusted and must be verified before gaining access to resources.
Key Characteristics of Zero Trust in the Diagram:
* Role-based Access Control: Ensures that users have access only to the resources necessary for their role.
* Mandatory Access Control: Additional layer of security requiring authentication for access to sensitive areas.
* Network Access Control: Ensures that devices meet security standards before accessing the network.
* Multi-factor Authentication (MFA): Enhances security by requiring multiple forms of verification.
This model aligns with the Zero Trust principles of never trusting and always verifying access requests, regardless of their origin.
References:
* CompTIA SecurityX Study Guide
* NIST Special Publication 800-207, "Zero Trust Architecture"
* "Implementing a Zero Trust Architecture," Forrester Research
質問 # 12
A security engineer receives an alert from the SIEM platform indicating a possible malicious action on the internal network. The engineer generates a report that outputs the logs associated with the incident:
Which of the following actions best enables the engineer to investigate further?
- A. Reviewing audit logs from privileged actions
- B. Querying user behavior analytics data
- C. Searching dark web monitoring resources for exposure
- D. Consulting logs from the enterprise password manager
正解：B
質問 # 13
A security engineer is reviewing the following piece of code for an internally developed web application that allows employees to manipulate documents from a number of internal servers.
Users can specify the document to be parsed by passing the document URL to the application as a parameter. The application then executes the following Python call: response = requests.get(url) The engineer wants to improve the security of the application before deployment. Which of the following is the best to implement?
- A. A WAF
- B. Indexing
- C. Output encoding
- D. A code scanner
正解：A
質問 # 14
A security engineer is given the following requirements:
* An endpoint must only execute Internally signed applications
* Administrator accounts cannot install unauthorized software.
* Attempts to run unauthorized software must be logged
Which of the following best meets these requirements?
- A. Deploying an EDR solution to monitor and respond to software installation attempts
- B. Maintaining appropriate account access through directory management and controls
- C. Configuring application control with blocked hashes and enterprise-trusted root certificates
- D. Implementing a CSPM platform to monitor updates being pushed to applications
正解：C
解説：
To meet the requirements of only allowing internally signed applications, preventing unauthorized software installations, and logging attempts to run unauthorized software, configuring application control with blocked hashes and enterprise-trusted root certificates is the best solution. This approach ensures that only applications signed by trusted certificates are allowed to execute, while all other attempts are blocked and logged. It effectively prevents unauthorized software installations by restricting execution to pre-approved applications.
References:
* CompTIA SecurityX Study Guide: Describes application control mechanisms and the use of trusted certificates to enforce security policies.
* NIST Special Publication 800-53, "Security and Privacy Controls for Information Systems and Organizations": Recommends application whitelisting and execution control for securing endpoints.
* "The Application Security Handbook" by Mark Dowd, John McDonald, and Justin Schuh: Covers best practices for implementing application control and managing trusted certificates
質問 # 15
A software engineer is creating a CI/CD pipeline to support the development of a web application.
The DevSecOps team is required to identify syntax errors. Which of the following is the most relevant to the DevSecOps team's task?
- A. Static application security testing
- B. Runtime application self-protection
- C. Web application vulnerability scanning
- D. Software composition analysis
正解：A
解説：
Static Application Security Testing (SAST) involves analyzing source code or compiled code for security vulnerabilities without executing the program. This method is well-suited for identifying syntax errors, coding standards violations, and potential security issues early in the development lifecycle.
Static application security testing (SAST): SAST tools analyze the source code to detect syntax errors, vulnerabilities, and other issues before the code is run. This is the most relevant task for the DevSecOps team to identify syntax errors and improve code quality.
質問 # 16
A cybersecurity architect is reviewing the detection and monitoring capabilities for a global company that recently made multiple acquisitions. The architect discovers that the acquired companies use different vendors for detection and monitoring The architect's goal is to:
* Create a collection of use cases to help detect known threats
* Include those use cases in a centralized library for use across all of the companies Which of the following is the best way to achieve this goal?
- A. TAXII/STIX library
- B. UBA rules and use cases
- C. Sigma rules
- D. Ariel Query Language
正解：C
解説：
To create a collection of use cases for detecting known threats and include them in a centralized library for use across multiple companies with different vendors, Sigma rules are the best option. Here's why:
* Vendor-Agnostic Format: Sigma rules are a generic and open standard for writing SIEM (Security Information and Event Management) rules. They can be translated to specific query languages of different SIEM systems, making them highly versatile and applicable across various platforms.
* Centralized Rule Management: By using Sigma rules, the cybersecurity architect can create a centralized library of detection rules that can be easily shared and implemented across different detection and monitoring systems used by the acquired companies. This ensures consistency in threat detection capabilities.
* Ease of Use and Flexibility: Sigma provides a structured and straightforward format for defining detection logic. It allows for the easy creation, modification, and sharing of rules, facilitating collaboration and standardization across the organization.
質問 # 17
Emails that the marketing department is sending to customers are pomp to the customers' spam folders. The security team is investigating the issue and discovers that the certificates used by the email server were reissued, but DNS records had not been updated. Which of the following should the security team update in order to fix this issue? (Select three.)
- A. SAN
- B. SASC
- C. SPF
- D. DMARC
- E. SOA
- F. DNSSEC
- G. DKIM
- H. MX
正解：C、D、G
解説：
To prevent emails from being marked as spam, several DNS records related to email authentication need to be properly configured and updated when there are changes to the email server's certificates:
* A. DMARC (Domain-based Message Authentication, Reporting & Conformance): DMARC records help email servers determine how to handle messages that fail SPF or DKIM checks, improving email deliverability and reducing the likelihood of emails being marked as spam.
* B. SPF (Sender Policy Framework): SPF records specify which mail servers are authorized to send email on behalf of your domain. Updating the SPF record ensures that the new email server is recognized as an authorized sender.
* C. DKIM (DomainKeys Identified Mail): DKIM adds a digital signature to email headers, allowing the receiving server to verify that the email has not been tampered with and is from an authorized sender. Updating DKIM records ensures that emails are properly signed and authenticated.
* D. DNSSEC (Domain Name System Security Extensions): DNSSEC adds security to DNS by enabling DNS responses to be verified. While important for DNS security, it does not directly address the issue of emails being marked as spam.
* E. SASC: This is not a relevant standard for this scenario.
* F. SAN (Subject Alternative Name): SAN is used in SSL/TLS certificates for securing multiple domain names, not for email delivery issues.
* G. SOA (Start of Authority): SOA records are used for DNS zone administration and do not directly impact email deliverability.
* H. MX (Mail Exchange): MX records specify the mail servers responsible for receiving email on behalf of a domain. While important, the primary issue here is the authentication of outgoing emails, which is handled by SPF, DKIM, and DMARC.
References:
* CompTIA Security+ Study Guide
* RFC 7208 (SPF), RFC 6376 (DKIM), and RFC 7489 (DMARC)
* NIST SP 800-45, "Guidelines on Electronic Mail Security"
質問 # 18
Within a SCADA a business needs access to the historian server in order together metric about the functionality of the environment. Which of the following actions should be taken to address this requirement?
- A. Deploying a screened subnet between 11 and SCADA
- B. Isolating the historian server for connections only from The SCADA environment
- C. Adding the business workstations to the SCADA domain
- D. Publishing the C$ share from SCADA to the enterprise
正解：B
解説：
The best action to address the requirement of accessing the historian server within a SCADA system is to isolate the historian server for connections only from the SCADA environment. Here's why:
* Security and Isolation: Isolating the historian server ensures that only authorized devices within the SCADA environment can connect to it. This minimizes the attack surface and protects sensitive data from unauthorized access.
* Access Control: By restricting access to the historian server to only SCADA devices, the organization can better control and monitor interactions, ensuring that only legitimate queries and data retrievals occur.
* Best Practices for Critical Infrastructure: Following the principle of least privilege, isolating critical components like the historian server is a standard practice in securing SCADA systems, reducing the risk of cyberattacks.
* References:
* CompTIA Security+ SY0-601 Study Guide by Mike Chapple and David Seidl
* NIST Special Publication 800-82: Guide to Industrial Control Systems (ICS) Security
* ISA/IEC 62443 Standards: Security for Industrial Automation and Control Systems
質問 # 19
A security analyst received a notification from a cloud service provider regarding an attack detected on a web server The cloud service provider shared the following information about the attack:
* The attack came from inside the network.
* The attacking source IP was from the internal vulnerability scanners.
* The scanner is not configured to target the cloud servers.
Which of the following actions should the security analyst take first?
- A. Create an allow list for the vulnerability scanner IPs m order to avoid false positives
- B. Quarantine the scanner sensor to perform a forensic analysis
- C. Set network behavior analysis rules
- D. Configure the scan policy to avoid targeting an out-of-scope host
正解：B
解説：
When a security analyst receives a notification about an attack that appears to originate from an internal vulnerability scanner, it suggests that the scanner itself might have been compromised. This situation is critical because a compromised scanner can potentially conduct unauthorized scans, leak sensitive information, or execute malicious actions within the network. The appropriate first action involves containing the threat to prevent further damage and allow for a thorough investigation.
Here's why quarantining the scanner sensor is the best immediate action:
* Containment and Isolation: Quarantining the scanner will immediately prevent it from continuing any malicious activity or scans. This containment is crucial to protect the rest of the network from potential harm.
* Forensic Analysis: By isolating the scanner, a forensic analysis can be performed to understand how it was compromised, what actions it took, and what data or systems might have been affected. This analysis will provide valuable insights into the nature of the attack and help in taking appropriate remedial actions.
* Preventing Further Attacks: If the scanner is allowed to continue operating, it might execute more unauthorized actions, leading to greater damage. Quarantine ensures that the threat is neutralized promptly.
* Root Cause Identification: A forensic analysis can help identify vulnerabilities in the scanner's configuration, software, or underlying system that allowed the compromise. This information is essential for preventing future incidents.
Other options, while potentially useful in the long term, are not appropriate as immediate actions in this scenario:
* A. Create an allow list for the vulnerability scanner IPs to avoid false positives: This action addresses false positives but does not mitigate the immediate threat posed by the compromised scanner.
* B. Configure the scan policy to avoid targeting an out-of-scope host: This step is preventive for future scans but does not deal with the current incident where the scanner is already compromised.
* C. Set network behavior analysis rules: While useful for ongoing monitoring and detection, this does not address the immediate need to stop the compromised scanner's activities.
In conclusion, the first and most crucial action is to quarantine the scanner sensor to halt any malicious activity and perform a forensic analysis to understand the scope and nature of the compromise. This step ensures that the threat is contained and provides a basis for further remediation efforts.
References:
* CompTIA SecurityX Study Guide
* NIST Special Publication 800-61 Revision 2, "Computer Security Incident Handling Guide"
質問 # 20
A manufacturing plant is updating its IT services. During discussions, the senior management team created the following list of considerations:
- Staff turnover is high and seasonal.
- Extreme conditions often damage endpoints.
- Losses from downtime must be minimized.
- Regulatory data retention requirements exist.
Which of the following best addresses the considerations?
- A. Establishing further environmental controls to limit equipment damage
- B. Using a non-persistent virtual desktop interface with thin clients
- C. Deploying redundant file servers and configuring database journaling
- D. Maintaining an inventory of spare endpoints for rapid deployment
正解：B
質問 # 21
A security analyst needs to ensure email domains that send phishing attempts without previous communications are not delivered to mailboxes. The following email headers are being reviewed:
Which of the following is the best action for the security analyst to take?
- A. Reroute all messages with unusual security warning notices to the IT administrator
- B. Block messages from hr-saas.com because it is not a recognized domain.
- C. Quarantine all messages with sales-mail.com in the email header
- D. Block vendor com for repeated attempts to send suspicious messages
正解：D
解説：
In reviewing email headers and determining actions to mitigate phishing attempts, the security analyst should focus on patterns of suspicious behavior and the reputation of the sending domains.
Block vendor com for repeated attempts to send suspicious messages: This option is the most appropriate because it targets a domain that has shown a pattern of sending suspicious messages. Blocking a domain that repeatedly sends phishing attempts without previous communications helps in preventing future attempts from the same source and aligns with the goal of mitigating phishing risks.
質問 # 22
A security analyst is reviewing the following log:
Which of the following possible events should the security analyst investigate further?
- A. A PDF that exposed sensitive information improperly
- B. A text file containing passwords that were leaked
- C. A macro that was prevented from running
- D. A malicious file that was run in this environment
正解：B
解説：
Based on the log provided, the most concerning event that should be investigated further is the presence of a text file containing passwords that were leaked. Here's why:
* Sensitive Information Exposure: A text file containing passwords represents a significant security risk, as it indicates that sensitive credentials have been exposed in plain text, potentially leading to unauthorized access.
* Immediate Threat: Password leaks can lead to immediate exploitation by attackers, compromising user accounts and sensitive data. This requires urgent investi
質問 # 23
Which of the following AI concerns is most adequately addressed by input sanitation?
- A. Non-explainable model
- B. Prompt Injection
- C. Model inversion
- D. Data poisoning
正解：B
解説：
Input sanitation is a critical process in cybersecurity that involves validating and cleaning data provided by users to prevent malicious inputs from causing harm. In the context of AI concerns:
* A. Model inversion involves an attacker inferring sensitive data from model outputs, typically requiring sophisticated methods beyond just manipulating input data.
* B. Prompt Injection is a form of attack where an adversary provides malicious input to manipulate the behavior of AI models, particularly those dealing with natural language processing (NLP). Input sanitation directly addresses this by ensuring that inputs are cleaned and validated to remove potentially harmful commands or instructions that could alter the AI's behavior.
* C. Data poisoning involves injecting malicious data into the training set to compromise the model.
While input sanitation can help by filtering out bad data, data poisoning is typically addressed through robust data validation and monitoring during the model training phase, rather than real-time input sanitation.
* D. Non-explainable model refers to the lack of transparency in how AI models make decisions. This concern is not addressed by input sanitation, as it relates more to model design and interpretability techniques.
Input sanitation is most relevant and effective for preventing Prompt Injection attacks, where the integrity of user inputs directly impacts the performance and security of AI models.
References:
* CompTIA Security+ Study Guide
* "Security of Machine Learning" by Battista Biggio, Blaine Nelson, and Pavel Laskov
* OWASP (Open Web Application Security Project) guidelines on input validation and injection attacks Top of Form Bottom of Form
質問 # 24
A company updates its cloud-based services by saving infrastructure code in a remote repository. The code is automatically deployed into the development environment every time the code is saved lo the repository The developers express concern that the deployment often fails, citing minor code issues and occasional security control check failures in the development environment Which of the following should a security engineer recommend to reduce the deployment failures? (Select two).
- A. Repository branch protection
- B. Code submit authorization workflow
- C. Pre-commit code linting
- D. Automated regression testing
- E. Pipeline compliance scanning
- F. Software composition analysis
正解：C、D
解説：
* B. Pre-commit code linting: Linting tools analyze code for syntax errors and adherence to coding standards before the code is committed to the repository. This helps catch minor code issues early in the development process, reducing the likelihood of deployment failures.
* D. Automated regression testing: Automated regression tests ensure that new code changes do not introduce bugs or regressions into the existing codebase. By running these tests automatically during the deployment process, developers can catch issues early and ensure the stability of the development environment.
Other options:
* A. Software composition analysis: This helps identify vulnerabilities in third-party components but does not directly address code quality or deployment failures.
* C. Repository branch protection: While this can help manage the code submission process, it does not directly prevent deployment failures caused by code issues or security check failures.
* E. Code submit authorization workflow: This manages who can submit code but does not address the quality of the code being submitted.
* F. Pipeline compliance scanning: This checks for compliance with security policies but does not address syntax or regression issues.
References:
* CompTIA Security+ Study Guide
* "Continuous Integration and Continuous Delivery" by Jez Humble and David Farley
* OWASP (Open Web Application Security Project) guidelines on secure coding practices
質問 # 25
A company that uses containers to run its applications is required to identify vulnerabilities on every container image in a private repository The security team needs to be able to quickly evaluate whether to respond to a given vulnerability Which of the following, will allow the security team to achieve the objective with the last effort?
- A. Centralized SBoM
- B. CIS benchmark compliance reports
- C. SAST scan reports
- D. Credentialed vulnerability scan
正解：A
解説：
A centralized Software Bill of Materials (SBoM) is the best solution for identifying vulnerabilities in container images in a private repository. An SBoM provides a comprehensive inventory of all components, dependencies, and their versions within a container image, facilitating quick evaluation and response to vulnerabilities.
Why Centralized SBoM?
* Comprehensive Inventory: An SBoM lists all software components, including their versions and dependencies, allowing for thorough vulnerability assessments.
* Quick Identification: Centralizing SBoM data enables rapid identification of affected containers when a vulnerability is disclosed.
* Automation: SBoMs can be integrated into automated tools for continuous monitoring and alerting of vulnerabilities.
* Regulatory Compliance: Helps in meeting compliance requirements by providing a clear and auditable record of all software components used.
Other options, while useful, do not provide the same level of comprehensive and efficient vulnerability management:
* A. SAST scan reports: Focuses on static analysis of code but may not cover all components in container images.
* C. CIS benchmark compliance reports: Ensures compliance with security benchmarks but does not provide detailed component inventory.
* D. Credentialed vulnerability scan: Useful for in-depth scans but may not be as efficient for quick vulnerability evaluation.
References:
* CompTIA SecurityX Study Guide
* "Software Bill of Materials (SBoM)," NIST Documentation
* "Managing Container Security with SBoM," OWASP
質問 # 26
SIMULATION
A security engineer needs to review the configurations of several devices on the network to meet the following requirements:
- The PostgreSQL server must only allow connectivity in the 10.1.2.0/24 subnet.
- The SSH daemon on the database server must be configured to listen to port 4022.
- The SSH daemon must only accept connections from a single workstation.
- All host-based firewalls must be disabled on all workstations.
- All devices must have the latest updates from within the past eight days.
- All HDDs must be configured to secure data at rest.
- Cleartext services are not allowed.
- All devices must be hardened when possible.
INSTRUCTIONS
Click on the various workstations and network devices to review the posture assessment results.
Remediate any possible issues or indicate that no issue is found.
Click on Server A to review output data. Select commands in the appropriate tab to remediate connectivity problems to the PostgreSQL database via SSH.
If at any time you would like to bring back the initial state of the simulation, please click the Reset All button.
正解：
解説：
質問 # 27
An organization wants to create a threat model to identity vulnerabilities in its infrastructure. Which of the following, should be prioritized first?
- A. Internal infrastructure with high-seventy and Known exploited vulnerabilities
- B. External-facing infrastructure with a high risk score that can only be exploited with local access to the resource
- C. External-facing Infrastructure with known exploited vulnerabilities
- D. External facing Infrastructure with a low risk score and no known exploited vulnerabilities
正解：C
解説：
When creating a threat model to identify vulnerabilities in an organization's infrastructure, prioritizing external-facing infrastructure with known exploited vulnerabilities is critical. Here's why:
* Exposure to Attack: External-facing infrastructure is directly exposed to the internet, making it a primary target for attackers. Any vulnerabilities in this layer pose an immediate risk to the organization's security.
* Known Exploited Vulnerabilities: Vulnerabilities that are already known and exploited in the wild are of higher concern because they are actively being used by attackers. Addressing these vulnerabilities reduces the risk of exploitation significantly.
* Risk Mitigation: By prioritizing external-facing infrastructure with known exploited vulnerabilities, the organization can mitigate the most immediate and impactful threats, thereby improving overall security posture.
* References:
* CompTIA Security+ SY0-601 Study Guide by Mike Chapple and David Seidl
* NIST Special Publication 800-30: Guide for Conducting Risk Assessments
* OWASP Threat Modeling Cheat Sheet
質問 # 28
Within a SCADA a business needs access to the historian server in order together metric about the functionality of the environment. Which of the following actions should be taken to address this requirement?
- A. Deploying a screened subnet between 11 and SCADA
- B. Isolating the historian server for connections only from The SCADA environment
- C. Adding the business workstations to the SCADA domain
- D. Publishing the C$ share from SCADA to the enterprise
正解：B
解説：
The best action to address the requirement of accessing the historian server within a SCADA system is to isolate the historian server for connections only from the SCADA environment.
Security and Isolation: Isolating the historian server ensures that only authorized devices within the SCADA environment can connect to it. This minimizes the attack surface and protects sensitive data from unauthorized access.
Access Control: By restricting access to the historian server to only SCADA devices, the organization can better control and monitor interactions, ensuring that only legitimate queries and data retrievals occur.
Best Practices for Critical Infrastructure: Following the principle of least privilege, isolating critical components like the historian server is a standard practice in securing SCADA systems, reducing the risk of cyberattacks.
質問 # 29
SIMULATION
An organization is planning for disaster recovery and continuity of operations, and has noted the following relevant findings:
1. A natural disaster may disrupt operations at Site A, which would then cause an evacuation.
Users are unable to log into the domain from-their workstations after relocating to Site B.
2. A natural disaster may disrupt operations at Site A, which would then cause the pump room at Site B to become inoperable.
3. A natural disaster may disrupt operations at Site A, which would then cause unreliable internet connectivity at Site B due to route flapping.
INSTRUCTIONS
Match each relevant finding to the affected host by clicking on the host name and selecting the appropriate number.
For findings 1 and 2, select the items that should be replicated to Site B.
For finding 3, select the item requiring configuration changes, then select the appropriate corrective action from the drop- down menu.
正解：
解説：
Matching Relevant Findings to the Affected Hosts:
Finding 1:
Affected Host: DNS
Reason: Users are unable to log into the domain from their workstations after relocating to Site B, which implies a failure in domain name services that are critical for user authentication and domain login.
Finding 2:
Affected Host: Pumps
Reason: The pump room at Site B becoming inoperable directly points to the critical infrastructure components associated with pumping operations.
Finding 3:
Affected Host: VPN Concentrator
Reason: Unreliable internet connectivity at Site B due to route flapping indicates issues with network routing, which is often managed by VPN concentrators that handle site-to-site connectivity.
Corrective Actions for Finding 3:
Finding 3 Corrective Action:
Action: Modify the BGP configuration
Reason: Route flapping is often related to issues with Border Gateway Protocol (BGP) configurations. Adjusting BGP settings can stabilize routes and improve internet connectivity reliability.
Replication to Site B for Finding 1:
Affected Host: DNS
Domain Name System (DNS) services are essential for translating domain names into IP addresses, allowing users to log into the network. Replicating DNS services ensures that even if Site A is disrupted, users at Site B can still authenticate and access necessary resources.
Replication to Site B for Finding 2:
Affected Host: Pumps
The operation of the pump room is crucial for maintaining various functions within the infrastructure. Replicating the control systems and configurations for the pumps at Site B ensures that operations can continue smoothly even if Site A is affected.
Configuration Changes for Finding 3:
Affected Host: VPN Concentrator
Route flapping is a situation where routes become unstable, causing frequent changes in the best path for data to travel. This instability can be mitigated by modifying BGP configurations to ensure more stable routing. VPN concentrators, which manage connections between sites, are typically configured with BGP for optimal routing.
質問 # 30
An engineering team determines the cost to mitigate certain risks is higher than the asset values The team must ensure the risks are prioritized appropriately. Which of the following is the best way to address the issue?
- A. Purchasing insurance
- B. Data labeling
- C. Branch protection
- D. Vulnerability assessments
正解：A
解説：
When the cost to mitigate certain risks is higher than the asset values, the best approach is to purchase insurance. This method allows the company to transfer the risk to an insurance provider, ensuring that financial losses are covered in the event of an incident. This approach is cost-effective and ensures that risks are prioritized appropriately without overspending on mitigation efforts.
References:
* CompTIA SecurityX Study Guide: Discusses risk management strategies, including risk transfer through insurance.
* NIST Risk Management Framework (RMF): Highlights the use of insurance as a risk mitigation strategy.
* "Information Security Risk Assessment Toolkit" by Mark Talabis and Jason Martin: Covers risk management practices, including the benefits of purchasing insurance.
質問 # 31
A security analyst is reviewing the following authentication logs:
Which of the following should the analyst do first?
- A. Disable User2's account
- B. Disable User8's account
- C. Disable User1's account
- D. Disable User12's account
正解：C
解説：
Based on the provided authentication logs, we observe that User1's account experienced multiple failed login attempts within a very short time span (at 8:01:23 AM on 12/15). This pattern indicates a potential brute-force attack or an attempt to gain unauthorized access.
Failed Login Attempts:
The logs show that User1 had four consecutive failed login attempts:
VM01 at 8:01:23 AM
VM08 at 8:01:23 AM
VM01 at 8:01:23 AM
VM08 at 8:01:23 AM
Security Protocols and Best Practices: According to CompTIA Security+ guidelines, multiple failed login attempts within a short timeframe should trigger an immediate response to prevent further potential unauthorized access attempts. This typically involves temporarily disabling the account to stop ongoing brute-force attacks.
Account Lockout Policy: Implementing an account lockout policy is a standard practice to thwart brute-force attacks. Disabling User1's account will align with these best practices and prevent further failed attempts, which might lead to successful unauthorized access if not addressed.
質問 # 32
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