Broadcom 250-604認定試験問題集には173練習テスト問題があります
最新250-604試験問題集には高得点で一発合格
質問 # 22
Which prerequisite must be met before enabling Endpoint Detection and Response (EDR) in the ICDm console?
- A. LiveUpdate must be manually triggered
- B. Cloud policy must be set to default read-only
- C. A valid SES Complete license must be active
- D. Endpoint Activity Recorder must be installed on all devices
正解：C
質問 # 23
What benefit does deploying Threat Defense for Active Directory offer in hybrid environments with both on-premises and cloud identity providers?
- A. It supports identity federation between AD and cloud services like Azure AD.
- B. It allows AD policies to be overridden by cloud-native endpoint policies.
- C. It ensures consistent threat visibility across both on-prem and cloud AD infrastructures.
- D. It disables all cloud sync operations while protecting AD.
正解：C
質問 # 24
What is the purpose of Adaptive Protection's Monitor mode?
- A. To gain visibility into the operational impact of unusual behavior
- B. To create a list of risky application behaviors
- C. To view the results of Symantec's behavioral global intelligence data analytics
- D. To deny unusual application behavior
正解：A
質問 # 25
Which antimalware engine detects a malicious file created with a custom packet?
- A. Emulator
- B. Sapient
- C. SONAR
- D. Core3
正解：A
質問 # 26
Scenario:
A large enterprise is piloting SES Complete's hybrid configuration in a subset of regional offices. The security team reports successful communication between SEPM and ICDm but needs guidance on managing endpoint policies during the pilot phase.
Which two recommendations would best support this deployment? (Choose two)
- A. Apply ICDm policies in monitor-only mode initially
- B. Migrate all users immediately to ICDm-managed policies
- C. Segment pilot users into dedicated groups in both SEPM and ICDm
- D. Remove SEPM site replication settings
正解：A、C
質問 # 27
Which two capabilities are included in SES Complete's mobile protection features? (Choose two)
- A. Identifying unsafe Wi-Fi connections
- B. Blocking VPN use across mobile endpoints
- C. Tracking device GPS locations
- D. Detecting sideloaded applications
正解：A、D
質問 # 28
How can EDR assist security administrators in distinguishing between suspicious and confirmed malicious activity?
- A. By modifying user roles and access rights
- B. By auto-deploying new agents across endpoints
- C. By issuing licensing alerts for underused devices
- D. By comparing behaviors against predefined threat intelligence baselines
正解：D
質問 # 29
When tuning SES Complete policies for attack surface reduction, which practices ensure minimal disruption while maintaining high security standards? (Choose two)
- A. Limiting administrative access to 24 hours a week
- B. Immediately blocking all unknown processes
- C. Regularly reviewing drift reports for unusual behavior
- D. Gradually moving policies from audit mode to enforcement
正解：C、D
質問 # 30
Which consideration is most relevant when integrating SEPM with the ICDm platform in a hybrid environment?
- A. Only cloud-licensed devices can participate in the hybrid structure.
- B. Devices cannot report to both SEPM and ICDm simultaneously.
- C. Certain features must be manually enabled to support co-management.
- D. Endpoint devices must be manually re-enrolled with each policy update.
正解：C
質問 # 31
When enabling mobile protection in SES Complete, which requirement must be fulfilled for Network Integrity to function properly?
- A. Only Android devices are supported
- B. The device must be jailbroken
- C. The Symantec Mobile Agent must be installed
- D. The device must be unmanaged
正解：C
質問 # 32
What are two recommended practices before fully switching policy management from SEPM to ICDm? (Choose two)
- A. Revoke client certificates from all SEPM-managed endpoints
- B. Uninstall SEPM services to prevent duplication
- C. Monitor ICDm policy effects in audit reports
- D. Evaluate policy differences using test groups
正解：C、D
質問 # 33
What method does SES Complete use to streamline agent enrollment for a large organization?
- A. Manual installation using USB drives
- B. Automatic registration through Microsoft Defender
- C. Endpoint configuration through Active Directory GPOs only
- D. Bulk enrollment through ICDm with client installation packages
正解：D
質問 # 34
Which two features of the ICDm Dashboard help identify and prioritize critical threats in real time? (Choose two)
- A. Security Control Widgets
- B. Administrative Role Manager
- C. LiveShell Scripting Console
- D. Threat Timeline Heatmap
正解：A、D
質問 # 35
What value does LiveShell bring to the EDR incident response process in ICDm?
- A. It allows the quarantine of all connected network devices
- B. It helps in rolling back OS updates on compromised machines
- C. It facilitates real-time remote access for investigative commands
- D. It performs automatic policy reconciliation
正解：C
質問 # 36
Scenario:
Your organization is expanding to new geographies, and you are tasked with applying attack surface reduction through SES Complete's App Control. Several regional apps trigger frequent alerts due to behavior deemed uncommon.
Which two strategies should you implement to ensure operational continuity while maintaining security posture? (Choose two)
- A. Use heatmap data to determine behavior acceptability
- B. Add regional apps to a whitelist based on drift analysis
- C. Increase enforcement mode to block all unverified apps
- D. Disable application behavior logging temporarily
正解：A、B
質問 # 37
What prerequisite must be fulfilled before administrators can enable the Network Integrity feature within the ICDm management console for securing mobile and modern devices?
- A. The cloud policy manager must be enabled on the firewall appliance.
- B. A valid Network Integrity license must be activated and associated with the device group.
- C. The administrator must first apply an antivirus-only policy group to the devices.
- D. The endpoints must be registered in audit-only mode before policy enforcement begins.
正解：B
質問 # 38
What benefit does behavioral tuning offer in the context of App Control and reducing the endpoint attack surface?
- A. It fine-tunes detection rules to reduce false positives and improve user experience.
- B. It enables the creation of USB device whitelists.
- C. It ensures antivirus signatures are updated every 2 hours.
- D. It provides remote desktop access to endpoints during threats.
正解：A
質問 # 39
What feature in ICDm allows administrators to generate summaries of threat activity for compliance or audits?
- A. Audit Log Viewer
- B. Administrative Reports
- C. Threat Activity Recorder
- D. Network Trace Analysis
正解：B
質問 # 40
Which two benefits result from submitting suspicious files to the sandbox through EDR? (Choose two)
- A. Immediate deletion of the file from all connected devices
- B. Prevention of local file sharing
- C. Detailed behavioral analysis of the file in a safe environment
- D. Automated signature creation for future threats
正解：C、D
質問 # 41
Scenario:
A security team observes a spike in endpoint alerts originating from a specific subnet. Upon opening the ICDm dashboard, they notice an ongoing incident categorized as "high severity" with multiple endpoints listed under the unified view.
What is the most effective first action using ICDm?
- A. Use the isolate endpoint action from the incident response panel
- B. Increase scan frequency for all endpoints in the subnet
- C. Export logs to CSV for external review
- D. Shut down all affected endpoints
正解：A
質問 # 42
Which step typically initiates the threat incident lifecycle in ICDm?
- A. Execution of a scan
- B. Updating of a security policy
- C. Identification of a suspicious activity
- D. Quarantine of a device
正解：C
質問 # 43
What must be enabled in the ICDm management console before App Control features can be used on endpoints?
- A. System Lockdown
- B. Endpoint Activity Recorder
- C. Application Control toggle under Device Settings
- D. Threat Defense for AD
正解：C
質問 # 44
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