[Q27-Q46] SY0-701練習CompTIA高合格率回答あなたを試験は高確率で合格させます！[2024]

SY0-701練習CompTIA高合格率回答あなたを試験は高確率で合格させます！[2024]

最高の方法からパスCompTIA Security+のSY0-701試験合格させます

質問 # 27
A company is planning a disaster recovery site and needs to ensure that a single natural disaster would not result in the complete loss of regulated backup dat

• A. Platform diversity
• B. Load balancing
• C. Hot site
• D. Which of the following should the company consider?
• E. Geographic dispersion

正解：D

質問 # 28
The marketing department set up its own project management software without telling the appropriate departments. Which of the following describes this scenario?

• A. Data exfiltration
• B. Insider threat
• C. Shadow IT
• D. Service disruption

正解：C

解説：
Explanation:Shadow IT is the term used to describe the use of unauthorized or unapproved IT resources within an organization. The marketing department set up its own project management software without telling the appropriate departments, such as IT, security, or compliance. This could pose a risk to the organization's security posture, data integrity, and regulatory compliance.

質問 # 29
Which of the following is the best way to consistently determine on a daily basis whether security settings on servers have been modified?

• A. Attestation
• B. Manual audit
• C. Automation
• D. Compliance checklist

正解：C

解説：
Automation is the best way to consistently determine on a daily basis whether security settings on servers have been modified. Automation is the process of using software, hardware, or other tools to perform tasks that would otherwise require human intervention or manual effort. Automation can help to improve the efficiency, accuracy, and consistency of security operations, as well as reduce human errors and costs. Automation can be used to monitor, audit, and enforce security settings on servers, such as firewall rules, encryption keys, access controls, patch levels, and configuration files. Automation can also alert security personnel of any changes or anomalies that may indicate a security breach or compromise12.
The other options are not the best ways to consistently determine on a daily basis whether security settings on servers have been modified:
Compliance checklist: This is a document that lists the security requirements, standards, or best practices that an organization must follow or adhere to. A compliance checklist can help to ensure that the security settings on servers are aligned with the organizational policies and regulations, but it does not automatically detect or report any changes or modifications that may occur on a daily basis3.
Attestation: This is a process of verifying or confirming the validity or accuracy of a statement, claim, or fact. Attestation can be used to provide assurance or evidence that the security settings on servers are correct and authorized, but it does not continuously monitor or audit any changes or modifications that may occur on a daily basis4.
Manual audit: This is a process of examining or reviewing the security settings on servers by human inspectors or auditors. A manual audit can help to identify and correct any security issues or discrepancies on servers, but it is time-consuming, labor-intensive, and prone to human errors. A manual audit may not be feasible or practical to perform on a daily basis.
Reference = 1: CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 Certification Study Guide, page 1022: Automation and Scripting - CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 - 5.1, video by Professor Messer3: CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 Certification Study Guide, page 974: CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 Certification Study Guide, page 98. : CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 Certification Study Guide, page 99.

質問 # 30
An organization is building a new backup data center with cost-benefit as the primary requirement and RTO and RPO values around two days. Which of the following types of sites is thebestfor this scenario?

• A. Cold
• B. Warm
• C. Hot
• D. Real-time recovery

正解：A

解説：
A cold site is a type of backup data center that has the necessary infrastructure to support IT operations, but does not have any pre-configured hardware or software. A cold site is the cheapest option among the backup data center types, but it also has the longest recovery time objective (RTO) and recovery point objective (RPO) values. A cold site is suitable for scenarios where the cost-benefit is the primary requirement and the RTO and RPO values are not very stringent. A cold site can take up to two days or more to restore the normal operations after a disaster. References = CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 Certification Study Guide, page
387; Backup Types - SY0-601 CompTIA Security+ : 2.5, video at 4:50.

質問 # 31
A cyber operations team informs a security analyst about a new tactic malicious actors are using to compromise networks.
SIEM alerts have not yet been configured. Which of the following best describes what the security analyst should do to identify this behavior?

• A. Threat hunting
• B. E-discovery
• C. Incident response
• D. [Digital forensics

正解：A

解説：
Threat hunting is the process of proactively searching for signs of malicious activity or compromise in a network, rather than waiting for alerts or indicators of compromise (IOCs) to appear. Threat hunting can help identify new tactics, techniques, and procedures (TTPs) used by malicious actors, as well as uncover hidden or stealthy threats that may have evaded detection by security tools. Threat hunting requires a combination of skills, tools, and methodologies, such as hypothesis generation, data collection and analysis, threat intelligence, and incident response. Threat hunting can also help improve the security posture of an organization by providing feedback and recommendations for security improvements. Reference = CompTIA Security+ Certification Exam Objectives, Domain 4.1: Given a scenario, analyze potential indicators of malicious activity. CompTIA Security+ Study Guide (SY0-701), Chapter 4: Threat Detection and Response, page 153. Threat Hunting - SY0-701 CompTIA Security+ : 4.1, Video 3:18. CompTIA Security+ Certification Exam SY0-701 Practice Test 1, Question 3.

質問 # 32
Which of the following is the most likely to be used to document risks, responsible parties, and thresholds?

• A. Risk tolerance
• B. Risk analysis
• C. Risk transfer
• D. Risk register

正解：D

解説：
A risk register is a document that records and tracks the risks associated with a project, system, or organization. A risk register typically includes information such as the risk description, the risk owner, the risk probability, the risk impact, the risk level, the risk response strategy, and the risk status. A risk register can help identify, assess, prioritize, monitor, and control risks, as well as communicate them to relevant stakeholders. A risk register can also help document the risk tolerance and thresholds of an organization, which are the acceptable levels of risk exposure and the criteria for escalating or mitigating risks.

質問 # 33
Which of the following allows for the attribution of messages to individuals?

• A. Adaptive identity
• B. Non-repudiation
• C. Access logs
• D. Authentication

正解：B

解説：
Non-repudiation is the ability to prove that a message or document was sent or signed by a particular person, and that the person cannot deny sending or signing it. Non-repudiation can be achieved by using cryptographic techniques, such as hashing and digital signatures, that can verify the authenticity and integrity of the message or document. Non-repudiation can be useful for legal, financial, or contractual purposes, as it can provide evidence of the origin and content of the message or document.

質問 # 34
Which of the following is used to add extra complexity before using a one-way data transformation algorithm?

• A. Key stretching
• B. Data masking
• C. Salting
• D. Steganography

正解：C

解説：
Explanation
Salting is the process of adding extra random data to a password or other data before applying a one-way data transformation algorithm, such as a hash function. Salting increases the complexity and randomness of the input data, making it harder for attackers to guess or crack the original data using precomputed tables or brute force methods. Salting also helps prevent identical passwords from producing identical hash values, which could reveal the passwords to attackers who have access to the hashed data. Salting is commonly used to protect passwords stored in databases or transmitted over networks. References = Passwords technical overview Encryption, hashing, salting - what's the difference?
Salt (cryptography)

質問 # 35
A company is required to use certified hardware when building networks. Which of the following best addresses the risks associated with procuring counterfeit hardware?

• A. A thorough analysis of the supply chain
• B. A right to audit clause in vendor contracts and SOWs
• C. An in-depth penetration test of all suppliers and vendors
• D. A legally enforceable corporate acquisition policy

正解：A

解説：
Counterfeit hardware is hardware that is built or modified without the authorization of the original equipment manufacturer (OEM). It can pose serious risks to network quality, performance, safety, and reliability12. Counterfeit hardware can also contain malicious components that can compromise the security of the network and the data that flows through it3. To address the risks associated with procuring counterfeit hardware, a company should conduct a thorough analysis of the supply chain, which is the network of entities involved in the production, distribution, and delivery of the hardware. By analyzing the supply chain, the company can verify the origin, authenticity, and integrity of the hardware, and identify any potential sources of counterfeit or tampered products. A thorough analysis of the supply chain can include the following steps:
Establishing a trusted relationship with the OEM and authorized resellers Requesting documentation and certification of the hardware from the OEM or authorized resellers Inspecting the hardware for any signs of tampering, such as mismatched labels, serial numbers, or components Testing the hardware for functionality, performance, and security Implementing a tracking system to monitor the hardware throughout its lifecycle Reporting any suspicious or counterfeit hardware to the OEM and law enforcement agencies Reference = 1: Identify Counterfeit and Pirated Products - Cisco, 2: What Is Hardware Security? Definition, Threats, and Best Practices, 3: Beware of Counterfeit Network Equipment - TechNewsWorld, : Counterfeit Hardware: The Threat and How to Avoid It

質問 # 36
An organization recently updated its security policy to include the following statement:
Regular expressions are included in source code to remove special characters such as $, |, ;. &,
`, and ? from variables set by forms in a web application.
Which of the following best explains the security technique the organization adopted by making this addition to the policy?

• A. Input validation
• B. Identify embedded keys
• C. Code debugging
• D. Static code analysis

正解：A

質問 # 37
A company prevented direct access from the database administrators' workstations to the network segment that contains database servers. Which of the following should a database administrator use to access the database servers?

• A. RADIUS
• B. HSM
• C. Load balancer
• D. Jump server

正解：D

解説：
A jump server is a device or virtual machine that acts as an intermediary between a user's workstation and a remote network segment. A jump server can be used to securely access servers or devices that are not directly reachable from the user's workstation, such as database servers. A jump server can also provide audit logs and access control for the remote connections. A jump server is also known as a jump box or a jump host12.
RADIUS is a protocol for authentication, authorization, and accounting of network access. RADIUS is not a device or a method to access remote servers, but rather a way to verify the identity and permissions of users or devices that request network access34.
HSM is an acronym for Hardware Security Module, which is a physical device that provides secure storage and generation of cryptographic keys. HSMs are used to protect sensitive data and applications, such as digital signatures, encryption, and authentication. HSMs are not used to access remote servers, but rather to enhance the security of the data and applications that reside on them5 .
A load balancer is a device or software that distributes network traffic across multiple servers or devices, based on criteria such as availability, performance, or capacity. A loadbalancer can improve the scalability, reliability, and efficiency of network services, such as web servers, application servers, or database servers. A load balancer is not used to access remote servers, but rather to optimize the delivery of the services that run on them . References = How to access a remote server using a jump host Jump server RADIUS Remote Authentication Dial-In User Service (RADIUS) Hardware Security Module (HSM)
[What is an HSM?]
[Load balancing (computing)]
[What is Load Balancing?]

質問 # 38
An IT manager informs the entire help desk staff that only the IT manager and the help desk lead will have access to the administrator console of the help desk software. Which of the following security techniques is the IT manager setting up?

• A. Hardening
• B. Least privilege
• C. Configuration enforcement
• D. Employee monitoring

正解：B

解説：
The principle of least privilege is a security concept that limits access to resources to the minimum level needed for a user, a program, or a device to perform a legitimate function. It is a cybersecurity best practice that protects high-value data and assets from compromise or insider threat. Least privilege can be applied to different abstraction layers of a computing environment, such as processes, systems, or connected devices. However, it is rarely implemented in practice.
In this scenario, the IT manager is setting up the principle of least privilege by restricting access to the administrator console of the help desk software to only two authorized users: the IT manager and the help desk lead. This way, the IT manager can prevent unauthorized or accidental changes to the software configuration, data, or functionality by other help desk staff.
The other help desk staff will only have access to the normal user interface of the software, which is sufficient for them to perform their job functions.
The other options are not correct. Hardening is the process of securing a system by reducing its surface of vulnerability, such as by removing unnecessary software, changing default passwords, or disabling unnecessary services. Employee monitoring is the surveillance of workers' activity, such as by tracking web browsing, application use, keystrokes, or screenshots. Configuration enforcement is the process of ensuring that a system adheres to a predefined set of security settings, such as by applying a patch, a policy, or a template.

質問 # 39
A healthcare organization wants to provide a web application that allows individuals to digitally report health emergencies.
Which of the following is the most important consideration during development?

• A. Cost
• B. Scalability
• C. Ease of deployment
• D. Availability

正解：D

解説：
Explanation:Availability is the ability of a system or service to be accessible and usable when needed. For a web application that allows individuals to digitally report health emergencies, availability is the most important consideration during development, because any downtime or delay could have serious consequences for the health and safety of the users. The web application should be designed to handle high traffic, prevent denial-of-service attacks, and have backup and recovery plans in case of failures.

質問 # 40
A security analyst is reviewing the following logs:

Which of the following attacks is most likely occurring?

• A. Brute-force
• B. Account forgery
• C. Pass-t he-hash
• D. Password spraying

正解：D

解説：
Explanation
Password spraying is a type of brute force attack that tries common passwords across several accounts to find a match. It is a mass trial-and-error approach that can bypass account lockout protocols. It can give hackers access to personal or business accounts and information. It is not a targeted attack, but a high-volume attack tactic that uses a dictionary or a list of popular or weak passwords12.
The logs show that the attacker is using the same password ("password123") to attempt to log in to different accounts ("admin", "user1", "user2", etc.) on the same web server. This is a typical pattern of password spraying, as the attacker is hoping that at least one of the accounts has a weak password that matches the one they are trying. The attacker is also using a tool called Hydra, which is one of the most popular brute force tools, often used in cracking passwords for network authentication3.
Account forgery is not the correct answer, because it involves creating fake accounts or credentials to impersonate legitimate users or entities. There is no evidence of account forgery in the logs, as the attacker is not creating any new accounts or using forged credentials.
Pass-the-hash is not the correct answer, because it involves stealing a hashed user credential and using it to create a new authenticated session on the same network. Pass-the-hash does not require the attacker to know or crack the password, as they use the stored version of the password to initiate a new session4. The logs show that the attacker is using plain text passwords, not hashes, to try to log in to the web server.
Brute-force is not the correct answer, because it is a broader term that encompasses different types of attacks that involve trying different variations of symbols or words until the correct password is found. Password spraying is a specific type of brute force attack that uses a single common password against multiple accounts5. The logs show that the attacker is using password spraying, not brute force in general, to try to gain access to the web server. References = 1: Password spraying: An overview of password spraying attacks ... - Norton, 2: Security: Credential Stuffing vs. Password Spraying - Baeldung, 3: Brute Force Attack: A definition + 6 types to know | Norton, 4: What is a Pass-the-Hash Attack? - CrowdStrike, 5: What is a Brute Force Attack? | Definition, Types & How It Works - Fortinet

質問 # 41
Which of the following roles, according to the shared responsibility model, is responsible for securing the company's database in an IaaS model for a cloud environment?

• A. Client
• B. DBA
• C. Cloud provider
• D. Third-party vendor

正解：A

解説：
Explanation
According to the shared responsibility model, the client and the cloud provider have different roles and responsibilities for securing the cloud environment, depending on the service model. In an IaaS (Infrastructure as a Service) model, the cloud provider is responsible for securing the physical infrastructure, such as the servers, storage, and network devices, while the client is responsible for securing the operating systems, applications, and data that run on the cloud infrastructure. Therefore, the client is responsible for securing the company's database in an IaaS model for a cloud environment, as the database is an application that stores data. The client can use various security controls, such as encryption, access control, backup, and auditing, to protect the database from unauthorized access, modification, or loss. The third-party vendor and the DBA (Database Administrator) are not roles defined by the shared responsibility model, but they may be involved in the implementation or management of the database security. References = CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 Certification Study Guide, page 263-264; Professor Messer's CompTIA SY0-701 Security+ Training Course, video 3.1 - Cloud and Virtualization, 5:00 - 7:40.

質問 # 42
After reviewing the following vulnerability scanning report:
Server:192.168.14.6
Service: Telnet
Port: 23 Protocol: TCP
Status: Open Severity: High
Vulnerability: Use of an insecure network protocol
A security analyst performs the following test:
nmap -p 23 192.168.14.6 -script telnet-encryption
PORT STATE SERVICE REASON
23/tcp open telnet syn-ack
I telnet encryption:
| _ Telnet server supports encryption
Which of the following would the security analyst conclude for this reported vulnerability?

• A. It is a false positive.
• B. A rescan is required.
• C. Compensating controls exist.
• D. It is considered noise.

正解：A

解説：
A false positive is a result that indicates a vulnerability or a problem when there is none. In this case, the vulnerability scanning report shows that the telnet service on port 23 is open and uses an insecure network protocol. However, the security analyst performs a test using nmap and a script that checks for telnet encryption support. The result shows that the telnet server supports encryption, which means that the data transmitted between the client and the server can be protected from eavesdropping. Therefore, the reported vulnerability is a false positive and does not reflect the actual security posture of the server. The security analyst should verify the encryption settings of the telnet server and client and ensure that they are configured properly3. References: 3: Telnet Protocol - Can You Encrypt Telnet?

質問 # 43
A company purchased cyber insurance to address items listed on the risk register. Which of the following strategies does this represent?

• A. Accept
• B. Avoid
• C. Mitigate
• D. Transfer

正解：D

解説：
Cyber insurance is a type of insurance that covers the financial losses and liabilities that result from cyberattacks, such as data breaches, ransomware, denial-of-service, phishing, or malware. Cyber insurance can help a company recover from the costs of restoring data, repairing systems, paying ransoms, compensating customers, or facing legal actions. Cyber insurance is one of the possible strategies that a company can use to address the items listed on the risk register. A risk register is a document that records the identified risks, their probability, impact, and mitigation strategies for a project or an organization. The four common risk mitigation strategies are:
Accept: The company acknowledges the risk and decides to accept the consequences without taking any action to reduce or eliminate the risk. This strategy is usually chosen when the risk is low or the cost of mitigation is too high.
Transfer: The company transfers the risk to a third party, such as an insurance company, a vendor, or a partner. This strategy is usually chosen when the risk is high or the company lacks the resources or expertise to handle the risk.
Mitigate: The company implements controls or measures to reduce the likelihood or impact of the risk.
This strategy is usually chosen when the risk is moderate or the cost of mitigation is reasonable.
Avoid: The company eliminates the risk by changing the scope, plan, or design of the project or the organization. This strategy is usually chosen when the risk is unacceptable or the cost of mitigation is too high.
By purchasing cyber insurance, the company is transferring the risk to the insurance company, which will cover the financial losses and liabilities in case of a cyberattack. Therefore, the correct answer is B.
Transfer. References = CompTIA Security+ StudyGuide (SY0-701), Chapter 8: Governance, Risk, and Compliance, page 377. Professor Messer's CompTIA SY0-701 Security+ Training Course, Section 8.1: Risk Management, video: Risk Mitigation Strategies (5:37).

質問 # 44
Which of the following is used to protect a computer from viruses, malware, and Trojans being installed and moving laterally across the network?

• A. NAC
• B. EDR
• C. IDS
• D. ACL

正解：B

解説：
Endpoint detection and response (EDR) is a technology that monitors and analyzes the activity and behavior of endpoints, such as computers, laptops, mobile devices, and servers. EDR can help to detect and prevent malicious software, such as viruses, malware, and Trojans, from infecting the endpoints and spreading across the network. EDR can also provide visibility and response capabilities to contain and remediate threats. EDR is different from IDS, which is a network-based technology that monitors and alerts on network traffic anomalies. EDR is also different from ACL, which is a list of rules that control the access to network resources. EDR is also different from NAC, which is a technology that enforces policies on the network access of devices based on their identity and compliance status. References: CompTIA Security+ Study Guide: Exam SY0-701, 9th Edition, page 2561

質問 # 45
Which of the following describes the reason root cause analysis should be conducted as part of incident response?

• A. To gather loCs for the investigation
• B. To eradicate any trace of malware on the network
• C. To discover which systems have been affected
• D. To prevent future incidents of the same nature

正解：D

解説：
Root cause analysis is a process of identifying and resolving the underlying factors that led to an incident. By conducting root cause analysis as part of incident response, security professionals can learn from the incident and implement corrective actions to prevent future incidents of the same nature. For example, if the root cause of a data breach was a weak password policy, the security team can enforce a stronger password policy and educate users on the importance of password security. Root cause analysis can also help to improve securityprocesses, policies, and procedures, and to enhance security awareness and culture within the organization. Root cause analysis is not meant to gather loCs (indicators of compromise) for the investigation, as this is a task performed during the identification and analysis phases of incident response. Root cause analysis is also not meant to discover which systems have been affected or to eradicate any trace of malware on the network, as these are tasks performed during the containment and eradication phases of incident response. References = CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 Certification Study Guide, page 424-425; Professor Messer's CompTIA SY0-701 Security+ Training Course, video 5.1 - Incident Response, 9:55 - 11:18.

質問 # 46
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CompTIA SY0-701事前に試験練習テストGoShiken: ：https://www.goshiken.com/CompTIA/SY0-701-mondaishu.html

SY0-701練習テスト問題回答解釈:：https://drive.google.com/open?id=1gkq9Cb3DkUKw1DS_3uyaFH8Uy_ghtI4e