CS0-003試験問題集合格できるには更新された2025年11月テスト問題集
CS0-003テスト問題練習は2025年最新のに更新された622問あります
CompTIA CS0-003 認定試験の出題範囲：
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質問 # 259
Which of the following responsibilities does the legal team have during an incident management event?
(Select two).
- A. Coordinate additional or temporary staffing for recovery efforts.
- B. Verify that all security personnel have the appropriate clearances.
- C. Review and approve new contracts acquired as a result of an event.
- D. Conduct computer and network damage assessments for insurance.
- E. Advise the incident response team on matters related to regulatory reporting.
- F. Ensure all system security devices and procedures are in place.
正解：C、E
解説：
The legal team plays a crucial role in managing the legal and compliance aspects of incident response. They review and approve contracts (B) for emergency services, like incident response firms, and provide guidance on regulatory reporting (C), ensuring the organization meets compliance requirements. According to CompTIA Security+ guidelines, legal teams focus on regulatory and contractual matters rather than operational aspects like staffing (A) or security procedures (D).
質問 # 260
An organization has noticed large amounts of data are being sent out of its network. An analyst is identifying the cause of the data exfiltration.
INSTRUCTIONS
Select the command that generated the output in tabs 1 and 2.
Review the output text in all tabs and identify the file responsible for the malicious behavior.
If at any time you would like to bring back the initial state of the simulation, please click the Reset All button.
正解：
解説：
Explanation:
Select the command that generated the output in tab 1:
* netstat -bo
Select the command that generated the output in tab 2:
* tasklist
Identify the file responsible for the malicious behavior:
* cmd.exe
Select the command that generated the output in tab 1: The output in tab 1 displays active network connections, which can be generated using the netstat command with options to display the owning process ID.
Select the command that generated the output in tab 1:
* netstat -bo
Select the command that generated the output in tab 2: The output in tab 2 lists the running processes with their PIDs and memory usage, which can be generated using the tasklist command.
Select the command that generated the output in tab 2:
* tasklist
Identify the file responsible for the malicious behavior: To identify the malicious file, we compare the hashes of the current files against the baseline hashes. From the provided data:
* The hash for cmd.exe in the current state (tab 3) is 372ab227fd5ea779c211a1451881d1e1.
* The baseline hash for cmd.exe (tab 4) is a2cdef1c445d3890cc3456789058cd21.
Since these hashes do not match, cmd.exe is the file responsible for the malicious behavior.
質問 # 261
A company wants to configure the environment to allow passive network monitoring. To avoid disrupting the sensitive network, which of the following must be supported by the scanner's NIC to assist with the company's request?
- A. Full-duplex mode
- B. Port bridging
- C. Tunnel all mode
- D. Port mirroring
- E. Promiscuous mode
正解：D
質問 # 262
An analyst is investigating a phishing incident and has retrieved the following as part of the investigation:
cmd.exe /c c:\Windows\System32\WindowsPowerShell\v1.0\powershell.exe -WindowStyle Hidden -ExecutionPolicy Bypass -NoLogo -NoProfile -EncodedCommand <VERY LONG STRING> Which of the following should the analyst use to gather more information about the purpose of this command?
- A. Echo the command payload content into 'base64 -d'.
- B. Run the command as an unprivileged user from the analyst workstation.
- C. Use a command console with administrator privileges to execute the code.
- D. Execute the command from a Windows VM.
正解：A
解説：
The command in question involves an encoded PowerShell command, which is typically used by attackers to obfuscate malicious scripts. To decode and understand the payload, one would need to decode the base64 encoded string. This is why option A is the correct answer, as 'base64 -d' is a command used to decode data encoded with base64. This process will reveal the plaintext of the encoded command, which can then be analyzed to understand the actions that the attacker was attempting to perform. Option B is risky and not advised without a controlled and isolated environment. Option C is not safe because executing unknown or suspicious code with administrator privileges could cause harm to the system or network. Option D also poses a risk of executing potentially harmful code on an analyst's workstation.
質問 # 263
An organization is planning to adopt a zero-trust architecture. Which of the following is most aligned with this approach?
- A. Network segmentation to separate sensitive systems from the rest of the network.
- B. Trusting users who successfully authenticate once with multifactor authentication.
- C. Whitelisting specific IP addresses that are allowed to access the network.
- D. Automatically trusting internal network communications over external traffic.
正解：A
解説：
Comprehensive and Detailed Step-by-Step Explanation:Network segmentation supports zero-trust principles by ensuring sensitive systems are isolated and access is restricted based on identity, role, and context. Unlike traditional models, zero-trust architecture does not automatically trust authenticated users or internal network traffic. It enforces strict access controls to minimize risk.
References:
* CompTIA CySA+ Study Guide (Chapter 2: Zero Trust and Network Segmentation, Page 52)
* CompTIA CySA+ Objectives (Domain 1.1 - Zero Trust Architecture)
質問 # 264
A security analyst is performing vulnerability scans on the network. The analyst installs a scanner appliance, configures the subnets to scan, and begins the scan of the network. Which of the following would be missing from a scan performed with this configuration?
- A. IP address
- B. Registry key values
- C. Operating system version
- D. Open ports
正解：B
解説：
Explanation
Registry key values would be missing from a scan performed with this configuration, as the scanner appliance would not have access to the Windows Registry of the scanned systems. The Windows Registry is a database that stores configuration settings and options for the operating system and installed applications. To scan the Registry, the scanner would need to have credentials to log in to the systems and run a local agent or script.
The other items would not be missing from the scan, as they can be detected by the scanner appliance without credentials. Operating system version can be identified by analyzing service banners or fingerprinting techniques. Open ports can be discovered by performing a port scan or sending probes to common ports. IP address can be obtained by resolving the hostname or using network discovery tools.
https://attack.mitre.org/techniques/T1112/
質問 # 265
An incident response team finished responding to a significant security incident. The management team has asked the lead analyst to provide an after-action report that includes lessons learned. Which of the following is the most likely reason to include lessons learned?
- A. To satisfy regulatory requirements for incident reporting
- B. To hold other departments accountable
- C. To highlight the notable practices of the organization's incident response team
- D. To identify areas of improvement in the incident response process
正解：D
解説：
Explanation
The most likely reason to include lessons learned in an after-action report is to identify areas of improvement in the incident response process. The lessons learned process is a way of reviewing and evaluating the incident response activities and outcomes, as well as identifying and documenting any strengths, weaknesses, gaps, or best practices. Identifying areas of improvement in the incident response process can help enhance the security posture, readiness, or capability of the organization for future incidents, as well as provide feedback or recommendations on how to address any issues or challenges.
質問 # 266
A payroll department employee was the target of a phishing attack in which an attacker impersonated a department director and requested that direct deposit information be updated to a new account. Afterward, a deposit was made into the unauthorized account. Which of the following is one of the first actions the incident response team should take when they receive notification of the attack?
- A. Scan the employee's computer with virus and malware tools.
- B. Contact human resources and recommend the termination of the employee.
- C. Review the actions taken by the employee and the email related to the event
- D. Assign security awareness training to the employee involved in the incident.
正解：C
解説：
In case of a phishing attack, it's crucial to review what actions were taken by the employee and analyze the phishing email to understand its nature and impact.References: CompTIA CySA+ Study Guide: Exam CS0-
003, 3rd Edition, Chapter 6, page 246; CompTIA CySA+ CS0-003 Certification Study Guide, Chapter 6, page
255.
質問 # 267
An organization has tracked several incidents that are listed in the following table:
Which of the following is the organization's MTTD?
- A. 0
- B. 1
- C. 2
- D. 3
正解：A
解説：
The MTTD (Mean Time To Detect) is calculated by averaging the time elapsed in detecting incidents. From the given data: (180+150+170+140)/4 = 160 minutes. This is the correct answer according to the CompTIA CySA+ CS0-003 Certification Study Guide1, Chapter 4, page 161. References: CompTIA CySA+ Study Guide: Exam CS0-003, 3rd Edition, Chapter 4, page 153; CompTIA CySA+ CS0-003 Certification Study Guide, Chapter 4, page 161.
質問 # 268
The security team reviews a web server for XSS and runs the following Nmap scan:
Which of the following most accurately describes the result of the scan?
- A. The vulnerable parameter ID http://172.31.15.2/1.php?id-2 and unfiltered characters returned
- B. The vulnerable parameter and characters > and " with a reflected XSS attempt
- C. The vulnerable parameter and unfiltered or encoded characters passed > and " as unsafe
- D. An output of characters > and " as the parameters used m the attempt
正解：B
解説：
A cross-site scripting (XSS) attack is a type of web application attack that injects malicious code into a web page that is then executed by the browser of a victim user. A reflected XSS attack is a type of XSS attack where the malicious code is embedded in a URL or a form parameter that is sent to the web server and then reflected back to the user's browser. In this case, the Nmap scan shows that the web server is vulnerable to a reflected XSS attack, as it returns the characters > and " without any filtering or encoding. The vulnerable parameter is id in the URL
http://172.31.15.2/1.php?id=2.
質問 # 269
A security analyst is reviewing a recent vulnerability scan report for a new server infrastructure. The analyst would like to make the best use of time by resolving the most critical vulnerability first. The following information is provided:
Which of the following should the analyst concentrate remediation efforts on first?
- A. SVR04
- B. SVR01
- C. SVR02
- D. SVR03
正解：C
解説：
SVR02 has a CVSS score of 7.1 and is exploitable, making itthe highest priority for remediation.
* SVR01 (CVSS 8.9) is not exploitable, so it is a lower risk.
* SVR03 (CVSS 3.5) is exploitablebut has alower severitythan SVR02.
* SVR04 (CVSS 6.7) is not exploitable, reducing its urgency.
Thus,B (SVR02) is the correct answer, as it presentsthe highest immediate risk.
質問 # 270
A red team engineer discovers that analyzing multiple pieces of less sensitive public information results in knowledge of a sensitive piece of confidential information. Which of the following best describes this security issue?
- A. Stored procedure
- B. Inference
- C. Cross-origin resource sharing
- D. Aggregation
正解：B
解説：
Inference occurs when an attacker deduces sensitive information by analyzing and correlating multiple pieces of less sensitive or public data. This indirect disclosure is a significant concern in data security and privacy.
質問 # 271
Which of the following entities should an incident manager work with to ensure correct processes are adhered to when communicating incident reporting to the general public, as a best practice? (Select two).
- A. Governance
- B. Legal
- C. Law enforcement
- D. Human resources
- E. Manager
- F. Public relations
正解：B、F
解説：
An incident manager should work with the legal and public relations entities to ensure correct processes are adhered to when communicating incident reporting to the general public, as a best practice. The legal entity can provide guidance on the legal implications and obligations of disclosing the incident, such as compliance with data protection laws, contractual obligations, and liability issues. The public relations entity can help craft the appropriate message and tone for the public communication, as well as manage the reputation and image of the organization in the aftermath of the incident. These two entities can help the incident manager balance the need for transparency and accountability with the need for confidentiality and security12.
References: Incident Communication Templates, Incident Management: Processes, Best Practices & Tools - Atlassian
質問 # 272
A security analyst is performing vulnerability scans on the network. The analyst installs a scanner appliance, configures the subnets to scan, and begins the scan of the network. Which of the following would be missing from a scan performed with this configuration?
- A. IP address
- B. Registry key values
- C. Operating system version
- D. Open ports
正解：B
解説：
Registry key values would be missing from a scan performed with this configuration, as the scanner appliance would not have access to the Windows Registry of the scanned systems. The Windows Registry is a database that stores configuration settings and options for the operating system and installed applications. To scan the Registry, the scanner would need to have credentials to log in to the systems and run a local agent or script. The other items would not be missing from the scan, as they can be detected by the scanner appliance without credentials.
Operating system version can be identified by analyzing service banners or fingerprinting techniques. Open ports can be discovered by performing a port scan or sending probes to common ports. IP address can be obtained by resolving the hostname or using network discovery tools.
質問 # 273
A security analyst must review a suspicious email to determine its legitimacy. Which of the following should be performed? (Choose two.)
- A. Examine the SPF, DKIM, and DMARC fields from the original email
- B. Review the Content-Type header
- C. Examine the recipient address field
- D. Evaluate scoring fields, such as Spam Confidence Level and Bulk Complaint Level
- E. Evaluate the HELO or EHLO string of the connecting email server
- F. Review the headers from the forwarded email
正解：A、F
質問 # 274
Which of the following risk management principles is accomplished by purchasing cyber insurance?
- A. Transfer
- B. Mitigate
- C. Accept
- D. Avoid
正解：A
解説：
Transfer is the risk management principle that is accomplished by purchasing cyber insurance. Transfer is a strategy that involves shifting the risk or its consequences to another party, such as an insurance company, a vendor, or a partner. Transfer does not eliminate the risk, but it reduces the potential impact or liability of the risk for the original party. Cyber insurance is a type of insurance that covers the losses and damages resulting from cyberattacks, such as data breaches, ransomware, denial-of-service attacks, or network disruptions.
Cyber insurance can help transfer the risk of cyber incidents by providing financial compensation, legal assistance, or recovery services to the insured party. Official References:
* https://partners.comptia.org/docs/default-source/resources/comptia-cysa-cs0-002-exam-objectives
* https://www.comptia.org/certifications/cybersecurity-analyst
* https://www.comptia.org/blog/the-new-comptia-cybersecurity-analyst-your-questions-answered
質問 # 275
A software developer has been deploying web applications with common security risks to include insufficient logging capabilities. Which of the following actions would be most effective to reduce risks associated with the application development?
- A. Implement server-side logging and automatic updates.
- B. Perform static analyses using an integrated development environment.
- C. Deploy compensating controls into the environment.
- D. Conduct regular code reviews using OWASP best practices.
正解：D
解説：
Conducting regular code reviews using OWASP best practices is the most effective action to reduce risks associated with the application development. Code reviews are a systematic examination of the source code of an application to detect and fix errors, vulnerabilities, and weaknesses that may compromise the security, functionality, or performance of the application. Code reviews can help to improve the quality and security of the code, as well as to identify and remediate common security risks, such as insufficient logging capabilities.
OWASP (Open Web Application Security Project) is a global nonprofit organization that provides free and open resources, tools, standards, and best practices for web application security. OWASP best practices for logging include following a common logging format and approach, logging relevant security events and data, protecting log data from unauthorized access or modification, and using log analysis and monitoring tools to detect and respond to security incidents. By following OWASP best practices for logging, developers can ensure that their web applications have sufficient and effective logging capabilities that can help to prevent, detect, and mitigate security threats.
References: OWASP Logging Cheat Sheet, OWASP Logging Guide, C9: Implement Security Logging and Monitoring - OWASP Foundation
質問 # 276
The security operations team is required to consolidate several threat intelligence feeds due to redundant tools and portals. Which of the following will best achieve the goal and maximize results?
- A. Data enrichment
- B. Single pane of glass
- C. Single sign-on
- D. Deduplication
正解：D
解説：
Explanation
Deduplication is a process that involves removing any duplicate or redundant data or information from a data set or source. Deduplication can help consolidate several threat intelligence feeds by eliminating any overlapping or repeated indicators of compromise (IoCs), alerts, reports, or recommendations. Deduplication can also help reduce the volume and complexity of threat intelligence data, as well as improve its quality, accuracy, or relevance.
質問 # 277
An organization would like to ensure its cloud infrastructure has a hardened configuration. A requirement is to create a server image that can be deployed with a secure template. Which of the following is the best resource to ensure secure configuration?
- A. OWASP Top Ten
- B. CIS Benchmarks
- C. PCI DSS
- D. ISO 27001
正解：B
解説：
The best resource to ensure secure configuration of cloud infrastructure is A. CIS Benchmarks.
CIS Benchmarks are a set of prescriptive configuration recommendations for various technologies, including cloud providers, operating systems, network devices, and server software.
They are developed by a global community of cybersecurity experts and help organizations protect their systems against threats more confidently.
PCI DSS, OWASP Top Ten, and ISO 27001 are also important standards for information security, but they are not focused on providing specific guidance for hardening cloud infrastructure. PCI DSS is a compliance scheme for payment card transactions, OWASP Top Ten is a list of common web application security risks, and ISO 27001 is a framework for establishing and maintaining an information security management system. These standards may have some relevance for cloud security, but they are not as comprehensive and detailed as CIS Benchmarks.
質問 # 278
A cryptocurrency service company is primarily concerned with ensuring the accuracy of the data on one of its systems. A security analyst has been tasked with prioritizing vulnerabilities for remediation for the system.
The analyst will use the following CVSSv3.1 impact metrics for prioritization:
Which of the following vulnerabilities should be prioritized for remediation?
- A. 0
- B. 1
- C. 2
- D. 3
正解：A
解説：
Vulnerability 2 has the highest impact metrics, specifically the highest attack vector (AV) and attack complexity (AC) values. This means that the vulnerability is more likely to be exploited and more difficult to remediate.
References:
* CVSS v3.1 Specification Document, section 2.1.1 and 2.1.2
* The CVSS v3 Vulnerability Scoring System, section 3.1 and 3.2
質問 # 279
A technician identifies a vulnerability on a server and applies a software patch. Which of the following should be the next step in the remediation process?
- A. Implementation
- B. Rollback
- C. Validation
- D. Testing
正解：C
解説：
Explanation
The next step in the remediation process after applying a software patch is validation. Validation is a process that involves verifying that the patch has been successfully applied, that it has fixed the vulnerability, and that it has not caused any adverse effects on the system or application functionality or performance. Validation can be done using various methods, such as scanning, testing, monitoring, or auditing.
質問 # 280
Which of the following ensures that a team receives simulated threats to evaluate incident response performance and coordination?
- A. Tabletop exercise
- B. Cybersecurity frameworks
- C. Incident response playbooks
- D. Vulnerability assessment
正解：A
解説：
A tabletop exercise is a structured simulation that allows teams to practice and evaluate their incident response procedures and coordination without actual operational impact. These exercises are used to identify gaps in processes and ensure preparedness for real-world threats.
質問 # 281
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